00:01
Hello students, let us consider free diagram body for the given question.
00:06
Here diameter is d1 at enter side and leaving side diameter is d2, velocity will be v1 and v2, flow rate is given that is 280 liter per second.
00:18
Let rx and ry be the forces on water due to bend.
00:23
From moment of conservation along x -axis, we can consider summation of force along x -axis will be equal to eq v2 cos 45 degree minus v1.
00:39
Now force can be written as p1 a1 minus rx is equal to eq v2 cos 45 is root 2 that is 1 by root 2 written here.
00:56
Consider this as equation 1.
00:58
Now flow rate is given that is 280 liter per second which can be written as 280 into 10 power minus 3 meter cube per second then 0 .280, 10 power minus 3 is converted.
01:18
Now v1 will be equal to flow rate divided by a1.
01:27
A1 is the area which is given by pi by 4 d1 square that is diameter, d1 is 300 millimeter in meter it will be 0 .3...