20 during resuscitation rescuers perform a cricoid pressure...

20. During resuscitation, rescuers perform a cricoid pressure maneuver during ventilations, which of the following statements is most TRUE regarding this procedure? It will likely cause more air to enter the esophagus instead of the trachea. This procedure should not be performed on infants or children less than 8 years of age. The skill of cricoid pressure may only be performed by advanced life support personnel. Complications of this procedure include esophageal rupture and possibly laryngeal trauma.

True or False: A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) can be used on a semi-conscious or conscious individual, while an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) should only be used on an unconscious individual. True False True or False: An individual in PEA has an organized cardiac rhythm on ECG. True False True or False: Symptomatic bradycardia and poor perfusion may degrade into cardiac arrest. True False True or False: The definition of stable tachycardia is a fast but constant heart rate between 80 and 120 beats per minute. True False True or False: Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability. True False True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes. True False True or False: 100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time. True False True or False: If atropine is unsuccessful in treating bradycardia, it is doubtful that the individual will respond to any other interventions. True False True or False: Transcutaneous pacing should be used on a bradycardic individual with insufficient perfusion before any other intervention. True False True or False: If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider. True False True or False: Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual. True False What does the BLS Survey want you to assess which of the following? Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis Responsiveness, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get an AED, Circulation, Defibrillation Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation What amount of time should ACLS providers spend on chest compressions to minimize interruptions? 10 seconds 30 seconds 2 seconds 5 seconds Hyperventilation (over ventilation) can be harmful because it: Increases intrathoracic pressure Decreases venous return to the heart Diminishes cardiac output All of the above Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway. How can they be removed? Bag-mask ventilation Laryngeal tube None of the above Suctioning What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways? Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) In an individual with ventricular fibrillation (VF), what should occur immediately following a shock? Resume CPR. Give epinephrine. Analyze rhythm. Check pulse. Which of the following is an essential component of high-quality CPR? Push hard and fast. Minimize interruptions. Switch rescuers every two minutes. All of the above When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered per shock? 360 J 150 J 200 J 300 J Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how many minutes? One minute Five minutes Two minutes 10 minutes For persistent VF/pulseless VT, vasopressors that may be given during CPR include: Amiodarone and diltiazem Epinephrine Magnesium and potassium Epinephrine and dopamine Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT: Hyperkalemia Hypoxia Hypothermia Hyperventilation Medications administered in the early treatment of suspected ACS include: Oxycodone, aspirin, nitrous oxide, and morphine Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and morphine Oxygen, vasopressin, nitric oxide, and meperidine Oxytocin, ibuprofen, nitroglycerine, and fentanyl What is the only means of identifying ST-elevation MI (STEMI)? Fibrinolytic checklist Coronary angiography None of the above 12-lead ECG Indications for transcutaneous pacing (TCP) include all of the following EXCEPT: Unstable third-degree AV block Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia Bradycardia with symptomatic ventricular escape rhythms Asystole Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than: 100 beats per minute 120 beats per minute 150 beats per minute 90 beats per minute Serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually NOT seen with ventricular rates less than: 200 beats per minute 250 beats per minute 150 beats per minute 120 beats per minute What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia (heart rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of shock? Synchronized cardioversion Defibrillation Obtain a 12-lead ECG Administer a calcium channel blocker Which of the following is true concerning ischemic strokes? They account for 80% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain. They account for 87% of all strokes and are usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain. They account for 50% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain. They account for 13% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain. Critical in-hospital goals of stroke care include a neurological assessment by the stroke team and a CT scan performed within ________ of hospital arrival. 60 minutes 10 minutes 25 minutes 45 minutes The chambers of the heart responsible for circulating deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation are the following: Right atrium and right ventricle Left ventricle and right atrium Left atrium and left ventricle Left atrium and right ventricle What does the PR interval on an ECG reflect? Time between atrial and ventricular contraction Opening of mitral valve between the left atrium and left ventricle T wave inversion Width of septum You are alone when you encounter an individual in cardiac arrest. They are not breathing, have no pulse, and have no suspected cervical spine trauma. Which maneuver should you use to open the airway? Jaw-thrust maneuver Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver Head-tilt only Blind finger-sweeps What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways? Endotracheal tube (ET) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) Laryngeal tube According to the 2015 AHA update, high-quality CPR is defined as: 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches 100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch 100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than 2.4 inches ACLS recommends minimizing interruption of chest compressions for which of the following: Ventilation Rhythm checks Shock delivery All of the above Defibrillators have two different designs for delivering energy. What are they? A. Monophasic B. Bicameral C. Biphasic D. Both A and C Thirty ____________ and two ____________ equal one cycle of CPR. Ventilations, compressions Chest compressions, jaw lifts Chest compressions, pulse checks Chest compressions, ventilations After performing CPR for two minutes on an individual in asystole, what is the ACLS trained providerâ€™s next intervention? AED shock administration IV or IO access for atropine administration Advanced airway insertion IV or IO access for epinephrine administration All of the following can be considered an underlying cause of pulseless electrical activity EXCEPT: Hypovolem

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Transcript

00:01 All right.

00:02 Our question actually contains about 50 or so true -fals questions.

00:08 And while we won't be able to cover all of them, we'll go through three or four of them here.

00:13 They're fun little er -focused questions, so right up my wheelhouse.

00:18 First off, true -fals.

00:22 While npas can be used on semi -conscious or conscious patients, opas should only be used on unconscious patients.

00:31 That is true you do not want to be putting an oral airway into an awake patient or any patient that has a gag reflex really because that will induce well it will induce a gag and potentially aspiration so one is uh sorry one is true two uh true or false an individual in pea has an organized cardiac rhythm on eccg yes that is also true so and uh uh pea is going to look like your normal ekg oftentimes.

01:11 It will have a nice, sometimes with a p wave, sometimes without, but it will look fairly normal.

01:19 The only thing that's wrong is that you don't have a pulse.

01:22 It's not actually causing contractility, at least not enough to give you a palpable pulse.

01:32 You might find some contractility when you use a bedside echocardiogram but not always and this is in contrast to truly disorganized rhythms which would be something like v -fib oh i've got my eraser again like v -fib where it's just a mess or um well i'm sorry that actually looks more like v -tac or v -fib which would be more like that those are clearly truly disorganized rhythms and obviously are not going to have palpable pulses either.

02:08 And then let's see.

02:09 Our next question, symptomatic bradycardia and poor profusion put the patient at risk for full cardiac arrest.

02:21 And that is true.

02:23 Three, true.

02:25 Oh, and let's say true here also.

02:27 Three is true...

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