A 70-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation and coronary artery disease is taking citalopram 20 mg daily. The client tells the PMHNP that she would like to discuss a dose increase. What is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?
Added by Juan Francisco J.
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The patient is taking citalopram, an SSRI, for depression or anxiety, and has a history of atrial fibrillation and coronary artery disease, which are important considerations when managing her medication. Show more…
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