A recent survey in the United States reported the prevalence of a sexually transmitted disease called chlamydia among 14 to 39-year-olds is 1.7% (95% CI = 1.4% – 2.0%). What is the margin of error associated with this survey's estimate of the prevalence of chlamydia? Suppose the prevalence of chlamydia among 14 to 39-year-olds in Great Britain is 1%. Do you think that the United States and Great Britain have the same true population prevalence of chlamydia among 14-39-year-olds, why?
Added by Eric G.
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MOE = (Upper bound - Lower bound) / 2 MOE = (2.0% - 1.4%) / 2 MOE = 0.6% / 2 MOE = 0.3% Show more…
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