Aristotle states that one who "can foresee by the exercise of mind is by nature intended to be lord and master, and that which can with its body give effect to such foresight is a subject, and by nature a slave"; and he suggests that men and women fall respectively into these categories. Why do you think Aristotle regarded women's intellect to be as a rule, inferior to that of men for purposes of leader-ship? Do you agree with Aristotle? Explain.