Consider the simple linear regression model \[ Y_{i}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} x_{i}+\epsilon_{i} \quad i=1,2, \ldots, n \] where the \( \epsilon_{i} \) 's are independent and identically distributed random variables with \( E\left(\epsilon_{i}\right)=0 \). The Sum Squared Error (SSE) is given by \[ \mathrm{SSE}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(y_{i}-\hat{y}_{i}\right)^{2}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(y_{i}-\hat{\beta}_{0}-\hat{\beta}_{1} x_{i}\right)^{2} \] where \( \hat{y}_{i} \) is the predicted value of \( y \) when \( x=x_{i} \). - Derive the following identity: \[ \mathrm{SSE}=S_{y y}-\hat{\beta}_{1} S_{x y} \] where \[ \begin{aligned} S_{y y} & =\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(y_{i}-\bar{y}\right)^{2} \\ S_{x y} & =\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-\bar{x}\right)\left(y_{i}-\bar{y}\right) \end{aligned} \] - Consider SSE and \( S_{y y} \), which of the following is correct? \[ \mathrm{SSE} \leq S_{y y} \] or \[ \mathrm{SSE} \geq S_{y y} \] Write down your proof. [Hint: \( \hat{\beta}_{1}=S_{x y} / S_{x x} \); use the above identity]
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- Start by expressing the SSE in terms of the residuals: \[ \mathrm{SSE} = \sum_{i=1}^n (y_i - \hat{y}_i)^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n (y_i - \hat{\beta}_0 - \hat{\beta}_1 x_i)^2. \] - Recall that the least squares estimates \(\hat{\beta}_0\) and \(\hat{\beta}_1\) Show more…
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For a simple linear regression model $$ Y_{i}=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} x_{i}+\epsilon_{i}, \quad i=1,2, \ldots, n $$ where the $\epsilon_{i}$ are independent and normally distributed with zero means and equal variances $\sigma^{2}$, show that $\bar{Y}$ and $$ B_{1}=\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-\bar{x}\right) Y_{i}}{\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-\bar{x}\right)^{2}} $$ have zero covariance.
Simple Linear Regression and Correlation
Correlation
Consider the simple linear regression model $Y=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} x+\epsilon,$ with $E(\epsilon)=0, V(\epsilon)=\sigma^{2},$ and the errors $\epsilon$ uncorrelated. (a) Show that $\operatorname{cov}\left(\hat{\beta}_{0}, \hat{\beta}_{1}\right)=-\bar{x} \sigma^{2} / S_{x x}$. (b) Show that cov $\left(\bar{Y}, \hat{\beta}_{1}\right)=0$.
Logistic Regression
Consider the standard simple regression model $y=\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} x+u$ under the Gauss-Markov Assumptions SLR.1, SLR.2, SLR.3, SLR.4 and SLR.5. The usual OLS estimators $\hat{\beta}_{0}$ and $\widehat{\beta}_{1}$ are unbiased for their respective population parameters. Let $\tilde{\beta}_{1}$ be the estimator of $\beta_{1}$ obtained by assuming the intercept is zero (see Section $2-6$ ). i. Find $E\left(\tilde{\beta}_{1}\right)$ in terms of the $x_{i}, \beta_{0},$ and $\beta_{1}$. Verify that $\tilde{\beta}_{1}$ is unbiased for $\beta_{1}$ when the population intercept $\left(\beta_{0}\right)$ is zero. Are there other cases where $\tilde{\beta}_{1}$ is unbiased? ii. Find the variance of $\tilde{\beta}_{1}$. (Hint: The variance does not depend on $\beta_{0} .$ ) iii. Show that $\operatorname{Var}\left(\tilde{\beta}_{1}\right) \leq \operatorname{Var}\left(\widehat{\beta}_{1}\right)$. [Hint: For any sample of data, $\sum_{i=1}^{n} x_{i}^{2} \geq \sum_{i=1}^{n}\left(x_{i}-\bar{x}\right)^{2},$ with strict inequality unless $\bar{x}=0 .]$ iv. Comment on the tradeoff between bias and variance when choosing between $\widehat{\beta}_{1}$ and $\tilde{\beta}_{1}$.
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