00:01
Hi, in this question they're saying that if a simple machine could be frictionless, then how would it ima and ama compare? now, the ima, that is ideal mechanical advantage of a machine, is equal to the maximum mechanical advantage of a machine.
00:22
And it is given as ima is equal to d -i by d -0, where d -i is the distance of the input force and d -0 is the distance of the output force.
00:38
And ama, which is actual mechanical advantage, is equal to f -0 divided by f -i, where f -0 is the output force and f -0 is the output force and f -i is.
00:56
The input force and ama is equal to the mechanical advantage of the machine when including energy lost due to friction and it is given as f0 by fi.
01:09
Now in a simple machine which is friction less which is given in the question there is no loss of energy.
01:17
So the work in input will be equal to work in output...