If X has the pdf of f(x)=1/4,-1<=x<3,x=0, then y=0, 1<=y<9: one to one transformation BUT I'M NOT SURE IF x=0. Is it right to think like this way? Please give me an explanation
Added by Catalina B.
Step 1
The pdf is defined as \( f(x) = \frac{1}{4} \) for the interval \( -1 \leq x < 3 \) and \( f(x) = 0 \) otherwise. This means that \( X \) is uniformly distributed over the interval \([-1, 3)\). Show more…
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