Let X be a binomial random variable, X ~ Binom(n, p). Show that the MLE of p is p^ = X/n.
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Step 1: Start with the likelihood function, which is \(L(p) = \prod_{i=1}^{n} {p^{x_i} (1-p)^{1-x_i}}\), where \(x_i\) are the observed values. Show more…
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