Let \( X_{i} \sim \operatorname{Exp}(1), i=1,2, \ldots \), independently.
Show that \( Y=X_{1}+X_{2} \) is not an exponential r.v.
Hint: Recall from class when we solved \#8.2. Let \( f_{1}\left(x_{1}\right) \) and \( f_{2}\left(x_{2}\right) \) denote the exponential p.d.f. for \( X_{1} \) and \( X_{2} \), respectively.
Which of the following statements is a valid argument? Mark the correct choice.
(a) \( f_{1}\left(x_{1}\right)=e^{-x_{1}} \) and \( f_{2}\left(x_{2}\right)=e^{-x_{2}} \Longrightarrow f_{Y}(y)=e^{-x_{1}}+e^{-x_{2}} \)
(b) \( f_{Y}(y)=e^{f_{1}\left(x_{1}\right)+f_{2}\left(x_{2}\right)}=e^{f_{1}\left(y-x_{2}\right)+f_{2}\left(y-x_{1}\right)} \)
(c) \( f_{Y}(y)=\int_{0}^{y} e^{-\left(y-x_{1}\right)} e^{-x_{1}} d x_{1}=y e^{-y} \)
(d) Use the change of variable formula, \( f_{Y}(y)=f_{1}\left(y-x_{2}\right)\left|\frac{d x}{d_{y}}\right|=\epsilon^{-\left(y-x_{2}\right)} \)
(e) none of these