The Rayleigh-Jeans distribution function (which was based on classical ideas and turned out to be incorrect) is $I(\lambda, T)=2 \pi c k_{\mathrm{B}} T / \lambda^{4} .$ Show that for long wavelengths, this approximates the Planck formula (4.28). (Remember the Taylor series for $e^{x}$.) Sketch the two distribution functions. Can you explain why one might expect the classical result to be better at long wavelengths?