Base case: For $n=1$, we have $1 \cdot 1! = 1$ and $(1+1)! - 1 = 2! - 1 = 1$. So the statement holds for $n=1$.
Inductive step: Assume the statement holds for some positive integer $n=k$, i.e.,
$$1 \cdot 1! + 2 \cdot 2! + \cdots + k \cdot k! = (k+1)! -
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