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Question 2 For a particle in a one-dimensional box, defined by: • V(x) = 0, {a > x > 0}, and • V(x) = infinity, {x >= a}, {x <= 0}. Consider the un-normalised function below: is or is not an acceptable wave function based on boundary conditions criteria and the association of $\psi^*(x)\psi(x)$ dx with probability? All constants are nonzero. $\cos(\frac{\pi x}{a})$ 1 pts It is not an acceptable wave function because it does not satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(a) = 0$, and it goes to infinity whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer. It is not an acceptable wave function because it goes to zero whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer. It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(a) = 0$, and it goes to infinity outside the boundaries of the box It is not an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(a) = 0$, and it goes to zero whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer. It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(0) = \infty$, and it goes to zero outside the boundaries of the box

          Question 2
For a particle in a one-dimensional box, defined by:
• V(x) = 0, {a > x > 0}, and
• V(x) = infinity, {x >= a}, {x <= 0}.
Consider the un-normalised function below: is or is not an acceptable wave function based on
boundary conditions criteria and the association of $\psi^*(x)\psi(x)$ dx with probability?
All constants are nonzero.
$\cos(\frac{\pi x}{a})$
1 pts
It is not an acceptable wave function because it does not satisfies the boundary condition that
$\psi(a) = 0$, and it goes to infinity whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer.
It is not an acceptable wave function because it goes to zero whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer.
It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(a) = 0$, and
it goes to infinity outside the boundaries of the box
It is not an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(a) = 0$, and it goes to
zero whenever $n\pi x/a = (2m+1)\pi$, for m an integer.
It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that $\psi(0) = \infty$, and
it goes to zero outside the boundaries of the box

Question 2
For a particle in a one-dimensional box, defined by:
• V(x) = 0, a > x > 0, and
• V(x) = infinity, x >= a, x <= 0.
Consider the un-normalised function below: is or is not an acceptable wave function based on
boundary conditions criteria and the association of ψ^*(x)ψ(x) dx with probability?
All constants are nonzero.
cos((π x)/(a))
1 pts
It is not an acceptable wave function because it does not satisfies the boundary condition that
ψ(a) = 0, and it goes to infinity whenever nπ x/a = (2m+1)π, for m an integer.
It is not an acceptable wave function because it goes to zero whenever nπ x/a = (2m+1)π, for m an integer.
It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that ψ(a) = 0, and
it goes to infinity outside the boundaries of the box
It is not an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that ψ(a) = 0, and it goes to
zero whenever nπ x/a = (2m+1)π, for m an integer.
It is an acceptable wave function because it satisfies the boundary condition that ψ(0) = ∞, and
it goes to zero outside the boundaries of the box

Added by Nathan T.

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