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Microbiology : PreTest Self-Assessment & Review

James D. Kettering

Chapter 7

Immunology - all with Video Answers

Educators


Chapter Questions

Problem 413

It is determined an infant suffers from Bruton's agammaglobulinemia. Which of the following pathogens will present the most serious threat to this child?
a. Measles virus
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

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01:43

Problem 414

Megakaryocytes are minimally immunoresponsive; such cells are also known as
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Cytokines
d. Interleukins
e. Platelets

Rashmi Sinha
Rashmi Sinha
Numerade Educator
03:36

Problem 415

One of the most remarkable aspects of the human immune system is its diversity, that is, the ability to recognize a wide range of antigens and to mount a specific antibody response. This is called clonal selection. At the cellular level, which of the following are primarily responsible for such specificity?
a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
c. The major histocompatibility complex
d. Specific T cell receptors
e. Memory cells

Ali Crampton
Ali Crampton
Numerade Educator
00:49

Problem 416

A young girl has had repeated infections with Candida albicans and respiratory viruses since the time she was 3 months old. As part of the clinical evaluation of her immune status, her responses to routine immunization procedures should be tested. In this evaluation, the use of which of the following vaccines is contraindicated?
a. Diphtheria toxoid
b. Bordetella pertussis vaccine
c. Tetanus toxoid
d. BCG
e. Inactivated polio

Dennis Howard
Dennis Howard
Numerade Educator
00:48

Problem 417

A latent, measles-like viral infection and, presumably, a defect in cellular immunity is associated with which of the following diseases?
a. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
b. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
d. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
e. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection

Sabihah Khan
Sabihah Khan
Numerade Educator
07:24

Problem 418

In humans, two closely linked genetic loci, each made up of two alleles, compose the histocompatibility locus A (HL-A). Paired first and second locus antigens are called haplotypes. The HL-A haplotypes (separated by a semicolon) of a child's parents are given below.
Father 3,25;7,12
Mother 1,3;8,9
Assuming that no cross-over events have occurred, the child's histotype could be which of the following?
a. 1,$3 ; 7,8$
b. 7,$12 ; 1,3$
c. 3,$3 ; 7,9$
d. 1,$25 ; 7,12$
e. 3,$25 ; 7,12$

Sana Riaz
Sana Riaz
Numerade Educator
01:41

Problem 419

The amounts of protein precipitated in a series of tubes containing a constant amount of antibody and varying amounts of antigen are presented below. In which tube is antigen-antibody equivalence obtained?
$$
\begin{array}{lll}
\text { Tube } & \text { Antigen Precipitated }(\mathrm{mg}) & \text { Protein }(\mathrm{mg}) \\
\text { a. } & 0.02 & 1.1 \\
\text { b. } & 0.08 & 2.1 \\
\text { c. } & 0.32 & 3.1 \\
\text { d. } & 1.0 & 3.7 \\
\text { e. } & 2.0 & 2.9
\end{array}
$$

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
02:19

Problem 420

The graph below shows the sequential alteration in the type and amount of antibody produced after an immunization. (Inoculation of antigen occurs at two different times, as indicated by the arrows.) Curve $\mathrm{A}$ and curve B each represent a distinct type of antibody. The class of immunoglobulin represented by curve $B$ has which of the following characteristics?
(Figure can't copy)
a. An estimated molecular weight of 150,000
b. A composition of four peptide chains connected by disulfide links
c. An appearance in neonates at approximately the third month of life
d. The human ABO isoagglutinin
e. A symmetric dipeptide

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
02:05

Problem 421

Which of the statements about the precipitin curve shown below is true?
a. In a multispecific system, a solution in zone B would have only an excess of antigen in the supernatant
b. In a monospecific system, a solution in zone B would contain only reacted antibody and antigen
c. A solution in zone A would be expected to have unreacted precipitable antigen in the supernatant
d. A solution in zone $\mathrm{C}$ would be expected to have both antigen and antibody in excess
e. A solution in zone $\mathrm{C}$ would be expected to have an excess of antibody in the supernatant
(Figure can't copy)

Ali Crampton
Ali Crampton
Numerade Educator
01:04

Problem 422

A widely used method for detecting either antigen or antibody in body fluids is known as ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay). The figure below demonstrates an ELISA for detection of antigen. One of the problems with ELISA is nonspecific reactivity due to nonspecific antibody present in the reaction. Of the four steps depicted, A, B, C, and D, which one may be the major cause of nonspecificity?
a. B
b. A
c. D
d. C
(Figure can't copy)

Hast Aggarwal
Hast Aggarwal
Numerade Educator
00:33

Problem 423

An Ouchterlony gel diffusion plate shows the reaction of a polyspecific serum against several antigen preparations. The center well in figure 1 contains polyspecific antiserum, first bleed; the center well in figure 2 contains polyspecific antiserum, second bleed; NS is normal saline. In this situation, cross-reaction can be recognized between antigen $\mathrm{X}$ and antigen
(Figure can't copy)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Eleanor Behling
Eleanor Behling
Numerade Educator
01:03

Problem 424

The affinity constant for this system is
a. $1 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{mol}$
b. $1 \times 10^4 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{mol}$
c. $1 \times 10^4 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{mol}$
d. $-4 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{mol}$
e. $16 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{mol}$

Hast Aggarwal
Hast Aggarwal
Numerade Educator
03:24

Problem 425

The antibody valence $n$ is defined as the maximum number of ligand molecules able to be bound per antibody molecule. In the example presented, $n$ equals
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 10

Aswathy M
Aswathy M
Numerade Educator
02:55

Problem 426

The antibody species most likely to have been used in the experiment described is
a. $\lg \mathrm{A}$
b. $\operatorname{IgD}$
c. $\lg \mathrm{E}$
d. $\lg G$
e. $\lg \mathrm{M}$

Danielle Ashley
Danielle Ashley
Numerade Educator

Problem 427

A 19-year-old college student develops a rash. She works part-time in a pediatric AIDS clinic. Her blood is drawn and tested for specific antibody to the chickenpox virus (varicella-zoster). Which of the following antibody classes would you expect to find if she is immune to chickenpox?
a. IgA
b. $\operatorname{Ig} \mathrm{D}$
c. $\operatorname{IgE}$
d. $\operatorname{IgG}$
e. $\lg M$

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Problem 428

A 34-year-old male patient visits a physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and "swollen glands." The physician also observes that he has an oral yeast infection. Which of the following tests would most likely reveal the cause of his problems?
a. A test for CD8 lymphocytes
b. A human T-lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) test
c. An HIV ELISA test
d. A test for infectious mononucleosis
e. A test for Candida albicans

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04:29

Problem 429

The figure demonstrates a Western blot for HIV. Based on these results, and assuming a repeatedly reactive ELISA HIV screening test, your best course of action is to
(Figure can't copy)
a. Repeat the test immediately
b. Inform the patient that the test is falsely positive
c. Wait 6 weeks and repeat the test
d. Consider anti-HIV therapy
e. Order an HIV RNA test

Sheryl Ezze
Sheryl Ezze
Numerade Educator
04:29

Problem 430

A second patient makes an appointment. This patient, a 30-year-old male, requests a routine HIV test. The HIV ELISA was weakly positive and is repeated with the same results. The Western blot result is as shown in the preceding figure. The patient denies any risk factors for HIV. Which of the following is the most likely cause of a falsely positive HIV test?
a. A yeast infection
b. Test cross-reactivity with HTLV
c. Test cross-reactivity with Epstein-Barr virus
d. Naturally occurring HIV antibody
e. A recent "flu" shot

Sheryl Ezze
Sheryl Ezze
Numerade Educator
00:52

Problem 431

Patients with C5 through C9 complement deficiencies would be most likely to have which of the following infections?
a. AIDS
b. Meningococcal infection
c. Pneumococcal infection
d. Giardiasis
e. Histoplasmosis

Jorge Villanueva
Jorge Villanueva
Numerade Educator
03:05

Problem 432

There are at least 10 properties of cytokines. Which of the following is one of these characteristics?
a. Mitogenesis
b. B-cell lipids
c. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) activation
d. T-cell differentiation
e. Hormonal antibody synthesis

Eric Goldman
Eric Goldman
Numerade Educator
01:00

Problem 433

Immunity may be natural or acquired. Which of the following best describes acquired immunity?
a. Increase in C-reactive protein (CRP)
b. Presence of natural killer (NK) cells
c. Complement cascade
d. Maternal transfer of antibody
e. Inflammatory response

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
03:53

Problem 434

A hapten is a nonimmunogenic small protein. Which of the following statements best describes haptens?
a. Haptens activate T cells
b. Penicillin is a hapten
c. Haptens do not react with specific antibody
d. Haptens bind the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
e. Poison ivy is caused by a small protein that is not a hapten

Noah Boudrie
Noah Boudrie
Numerade Educator
00:55

Problem 435

The major role of $T$ cells in the immune response includes which one of the following?
a. Recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on all surfaces
b. Complement fixation
c. Phagocytosis
d. Production of antibodies

Hunza Gilgit
Hunza Gilgit
Numerade Educator
00:33

Problem 436

Which one of the following statements best describes immunoglobulin structure?
a. The amino acid sequence variation of the heavy chains is different than that observed in light chains
b. In humans, there are approximately twice as many Ig molecules with $\kappa$ and $\lambda$ chains
c. In the three-dimensional structure of $\mathrm{Ig}$, there is little, if any, flexibility in the hinge region between the $\mathrm{Fc}_{\mathrm{c}}$ and two Fab portions
d. $\operatorname{lgM}$ is a monomeric structure
e. Ig structural studies have been difficult because there is no readily available model protein

Sam Limsuwannarot
Sam Limsuwannarot
Numerade Educator
01:40

Problem 437

Specific immunological unresponsiveness is called tolerance. Which one of the following statements best describes immunological tolerance?
a. Immunologic maturity of the host does not play a major role
b. It occurs only with polysaccharide antigens
c. It is related to the concentration of antibody
d. It is best maintained by the presence of polysaccharide antigens
e. It is prolonged by administration of immunosuppressive drugs

Christina Sorrentino
Christina Sorrentino
Numerade Educator
01:14

Problem 438

It appears that HIV binds selectively to CD4 glycoproteins. Thus, HIV shows a selective infection with the destruction of helper $T$ cells. Which of the following cells exhibit CD4 glycoprotein on their cell surface?
a. Macrophages
b. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
c. Suppressor lymphocytes
d. Columnar epithelial cells
e. Squamous epithelial cells

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:29

Problem 439

Which one of the following statements best describes properties of interleukin 1 (IL-1)?
a. It is a macrophage-derived product
b. It does not activate B cells
c. It may stimulate cytoxic B cells
d. There is a single biologically active form
e. Its activity is histocompatibility-restricted

Arun Bana
Arun Bana
Numerade Educator
01:29

Problem 440

Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a potent cytokine. It is best described by which one of the following statements?
a. Synthesis of IL-1 is inhibited in activated macrophages
b. It can be produced by natural killer cells
c. It exerts its effects on $\mathrm{T}$ and $\mathrm{B}$ cells as a costimulator
d. It is multimeric and consists of more than one protein
e. IL-6 has an inhibitory effect on IL-1

Arun Bana
Arun Bana
Numerade Educator
01:29

Problem 441

Survival of allografts is increased by choosing donors with few major histocompatibility complex (MHC) mismatches with recipients and by use of immunosuppression in recipients. Which one of the following procedures might be a useful measure of immunosuppression?
a. Administration of corticosteroids to recipient
b. Lymphoid irradiation of donor
c. Administration of immunoglobulin to recipient
d. Destruction of donor B cells
e. Destruction of donor T cells

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:35

Problem 442

Relative to the primary immunological response, secondary and later booster responses to a given hapten-protein complex can be associated with which one of the following?
a. Lower titers of antibody
b. Increased antibody affinity for the hapten
c. Decreased antibody avidity for the original hapten-protein complex
d. Maintenance of the same subclass, or idiotype, of antibody produced
e. Antibodies that are less efficient in preventing specific disease

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
04:12

Problem 443

Which one of the following hypotheses may be sufficient to explain nonprecipitation in antigen-antibody system?
a. The antigen has a multivalent determinant
b. The antigen has a single, nonrepeated determinant
c. The antibody has been cleaved to divalent Fab' ligands
d. The antibody has been cleaved to divalent $\mathrm{Fab}_2^{\prime}$ ligands
e. The antibody has high affinity for the antigen

Leah Lampen
Leah Lampen
Numerade Educator
00:41

Problem 444

IgA antibody is the first line of defense against infections at the mucous membrane. It is usually an early specific antibody. Which of the following statements regarding IgA is not true?
a. Complement fixation tests for IgA antibody will be positive if specific IgA antibody is present
b. IgA is not found in saliva, therefore an IgA diagnostic test on saliva would have no value
c. IgA can be destroyed by bacterial proteases
d. IgA is absent in colostrum
e. IgA is a small molecule with a molecular weight of $30,000 \mathrm{kDa}$

Courtney Burson
Courtney Burson
Numerade Educator
00:41

Problem 445

Complement is a series of important host proteins which provide protection from invasion by foreign microorganisms. Which one of the following statements best describes complement?
a. Complement inhibits phagocytosis
b. Microorganisms agglutinate in the presence of complement but do not lyse
c. Complement plays a minor role in the inflammatory response
d. Complement protects the host from pneumococcal and Haemophilus infection through complement components $\mathrm{Cl}, \mathrm{C} 2$, and $\mathrm{C} 4$
e. Complement is activated by $\operatorname{IgE}$ antibody classes

Aditya Sood
Aditya Sood
Numerade Educator
00:51

Problem 446

Which immunoglobulin has no known function, but is present on the surface of B lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor.
a. $\operatorname{Ig} G$
b. $\operatorname{IgM}$
c. $\lg \mathrm{E}$
d. $\lg \mathrm{A}$
e. $\lg \mathrm{D}$

Courtney Burson
Courtney Burson
Numerade Educator
01:33

Problem 447

Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum.
a. $\operatorname{Ig} G$
b. $\lg M$
c. $\operatorname{IgE}$
d. IgA
e. $\operatorname{IgD}$

Arwen Xu
Arwen Xu
Numerade Educator
04:26

Problem 448

Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in immune response to parasitic infections?
a. $\operatorname{IgG}$
b. $\operatorname{Ig} M$
c. $\operatorname{IgE}$
d. IgA
e. $\operatorname{Ig} \mathrm{D}$

Danielle Ashley
Danielle Ashley
Numerade Educator
01:33

Problem 449

Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital secretions?
a. $\operatorname{Ig} G$
b. $\operatorname{IgM}$
c. $\operatorname{IgE}$
d. IgA
e. $\operatorname{Ig} \mathrm{D}$

Arwen Xu
Arwen Xu
Numerade Educator
01:33

Problem 450

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has four subclasses.
a. $\operatorname{Ig} G$
b. IgM
c. $\operatorname{IgE}$
d. IgA
e. $\operatorname{IgD}$

Arwen Xu
Arwen Xu
Numerade Educator

Problem 451

IgM antibody (1:200) to Borrelia burgdorferi is associated with
a. Fifth disease
b. Susceptibility to chickenpox
c. Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
d. Possible hepatitis B infection
e. Acute Lyme disease

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Problem 452

Elevated $\operatorname{IgG}$ and $\operatorname{IgM}$ antibody titers to parvovirus suggest a diagnosis of
a. Fifth disease
b. Susceptibility to chickenpox
c. Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
d. Possible hepatitis B infection
e. Acute Lyme disease

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01:30

Problem 453

A negative varicella antibody titer in a young woman signifies
a. Fifth disease
b. Susceptibility to chickenpox
c. Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
d. Possible hepatitis B infection
e. Acute Lyme disease

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:30

Problem 454

A patient has an increased antibody titer to delta agent. You would most likely suspect
a. Fifth disease
b. Susceptibility to chickenpox
c. Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
d. Possible hepatitis B infection
e. Acute Lyme disease

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator

Problem 455

A patient with neurological problems has an elevated cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) antibody titer to measles virus. You would most likely suspect
a. Fifth disease
b. Susceptibility to chickenpox
c. Possible subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
d. Possible hepatitis B infection
e. Acute Lyme disease

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Problem 456

$\mathrm{EBNA}-\mathrm{Ab}$
a. Appears 2 weeks to several months after onset and is present more often in atypical cases of infectious mononucleosis
b. Appears 3 to 4 weeks after onset; titers correlate with severity of clinical illness
c. Arises early in the course of the illness; detectable titers persist a lifetime
d. Appears late in the course of the disease and persists a lifetime
e. Arises early in the course of the illness, and then titers fall rapidly

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Problem 457

EA-EBV (anti-D) Ab
a. Appears 2 weeks to several months after onset and is present more often in atypical cases of infectious mononucleosis
b. Appears 3 to 4 weeks after onset; titers correlate with severity of clinical illness
c. Arises early in the course of the illness; detectable titers persist a lifetime
d. Appears late in the course of the disease and persists a lifetime
e. Arises early in the course of the illness, and then titers fall rapidly

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Problem 458

$\mathrm{EBV-VCA}(\operatorname{IgG}) \mathrm{Ab}$
a. Appears 2 weeks to several months after onset and is present more often in atypical cases of infectious mononucleosis
b. Appears 3 to 4 weeks after onset; titers correlate with severity of clinical illness
c. Arises early in the course of the illness; detectable titers persist a lifetime
d. Appears late in the course of the disease and persists a lifetime
e. Arises early in the course of the illness, and then titers fall rapidly

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Problem 459

$\mathrm{EBV}-\mathrm{VCA}(\operatorname{IgM}) \mathrm{Ab}$
a. Appears 2 weeks to several months after onset and is present more often in atypical cases of infectious mononucleosis
b. Appears 3 to 4 weeks after onset; titers correlate with severity of clinical illness
c. Arises early in the course of the illness; detectable titers persist a lifetime
d. Appears late in the course of the disease and persists a lifetime
e. Arises early in the course of the illness, and then titers fall rapidly

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04:55

Problem 460

Ataxia-telangiectasia usually is associated with
Humoral Cellular
a. Normal Normal
b. Normal Deficient
c. Deficient Normal
d. Deficient Deficient
e. Elevated Elevated

Bryan Valdivia
Bryan Valdivia
Numerade Educator
02:36

Problem 461

Infantile X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's disease) is usually associated with
Humoral Cellular
a. Normal Normal
b. Normal Deficient
c. Deficient Normal
d. Deficient Deficient
e. Elevated Elevated

Rehana Riaz
Rehana Riaz
Numerade Educator
02:36

Problem 462

Swiss-type hypogammaglobulinemia is usually associated with
Humoral Cellular
a. Normal Normal
b. Normal Deficient
c. Deficient Normal
d. Deficient Deficient
e. Elevated Elevated

Rehana Riaz
Rehana Riaz
Numerade Educator
01:20

Problem 463

Thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge's syndrome) is usually associated with Humoral Cellular
a. Normal Normal
b. Normal Deficient
c. Deficient Normal
d. Deficient Deficient
e. Elevated Elevated

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:20

Problem 464

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is usually associated with
Humoral Cellular
a. Normal Normal
b. Normal Deficient
c. Deficient Normal
d. Deficient Deficient
e. Elevated Elevated

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
02:30

Problem 465

A xenograft is best described as a
a. Transplant from one region of a person to another
b. Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
c. Transplant from one species to the same species
d. Transplant from one species to another species

Alexander Clippinger
Alexander Clippinger
Numerade Educator
02:30

Problem 466

An allograft is best described as a
a. Transplant from one region of a person to another
b. Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
c. Transplant from one species to the same species
d. Transplant from one species to another species

Alexander Clippinger
Alexander Clippinger
Numerade Educator
02:30

Problem 467

An autograft is best described as a
a. Transplant from one region of a person to another
b. Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
c. Transplant from one species to the same species
d. Transplant from one species to another species

Alexander Clippinger
Alexander Clippinger
Numerade Educator
02:30

Problem 468

An isograft is best described as a
a. Transplant from one region of a person to another
b. Transplant from one person to a genetically identical person
c. Transplant from one species to the same species
d. Transplant from one species to another species

Alexander Clippinger
Alexander Clippinger
Numerade Educator
04:46

Problem 469

An isotype is characterized by
a. Determinant exposed after papain cleavage to an $F(a b)$ fragment
b. Determinant from one clone of cells and probably located close to the antigenbinding site of the immunoglobulin
c. Determinant inherited in a Mendelian fashion and recognized by crossimmunization of individuals in a species
d. Heavy-chain determinant recognized by heterologous antisera
e. Species-specific carbohydrate determinant on the heavy chain

Heather Thornton
Heather Thornton
Numerade Educator
04:46

Problem 470

An allotype is characterized by
a. Determinant exposed after papain cleavage to an $F(a b)$ fragment
b. Determinant from one clone of cells and probably located close to the antigenbinding site of the immunoglobulin
c. Determinant inherited in a Mendelian fashion and recognized by crossimmunization of individuals in a species
d. Heavy-chain determinant recognized by heterologous antisera
e. Species-specific carbohydrate determinant on the heavy chain

Heather Thornton
Heather Thornton
Numerade Educator
04:46

Problem 471

An idiotype is characterized by
a. Determinant exposed after papain cleavage to an $\mathrm{F}\left(\mathrm{ab}{ }^{\prime}\right) 2$ fragment
b. Determinant from one clone of cells and probably located close to the antigenbinding site of the immunoglobulin
c. Determinant inherited in a Mendelian fashion and recognized by crossimmunization of individuals in a species
d. Heavy-chain determinant recognized by heterologous antisera
e. Species-specific carbohydrate determinant on the heavy chain

Heather Thornton
Heather Thornton
Numerade Educator
01:21

Problem 472

$\alpha_1$-Antitrypsin deficiency is associated with which one of the following patterns?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $\mathrm{E}$

Gaurav Kalra
Gaurav Kalra
Numerade Educator
01:02

Problem 473

Multiple myeloma is associated with which one of the following patterns?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$

Christina Sorrentino
Christina Sorrentino
Numerade Educator

Problem 474

Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia is associated with which one of the following patterns?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$

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01:27

Problem 475

Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia is associated with which one of the following patterns?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Dr.  Satish  Ingale
Dr. Satish Ingale
Numerade Educator
00:20

Problem 476

Which one of the following patterns would be seen in a normal person?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$

Ashley High
Ashley High
Numerade Educator
01:57

Problem 477

Anti-Mycoplasma antibody + complement + hemolysin-sensitized red blood cells (RBC) + anti-RBC antibody results in
a. Complement is bound, red blood cells are lysed
b. Complement is bound, red blood cells are not lysed
c. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are lysed
d. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are not lysed
e. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are agglutinated

Mariana Roldan
Mariana Roldan
Numerade Educator
01:57

Problem 478

Anti-Mycoplasma antibody + Mycoplasma antigen + complement + hemolysin-sensitized red blood cells + anti-RBC antibody results in
a. Complement is bound, red blood cells are lysed
b. Complement is bound, red blood cells are not lysed
c. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are lysed
d. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are not lysed
e. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are agglutinated

Mariana Roldan
Mariana Roldan
Numerade Educator
01:57

Problem 479

Anti-Mycoplasma antibody + Mycoplasma antigen + complement + hemolysin-sensitized red blood cells + anti-RBC antibody results in
a. Complement is bound, red blood cells are lysed
b. Complement is bound, red blood cells are not lysed
c. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are lysed
d. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are not lysed
e. Complement is not bound, red blood cells are agglutinated

Mariana Roldan
Mariana Roldan
Numerade Educator
00:36

Problem 480

Finding $\lg G$ antibodies to core antigen, antibodies to e antigen, and antibodies to surface antigen reflects
a. Acute infection (incubation period)
b. Acute infection (acute phase)
c. Post infection (acute phase)
d. Immunization
e. HBV carrier state

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
02:41

Problem 481

Finding $\mathrm{HBsAg}$ positive and $\mathrm{HBeAg}$ positive reflects
a. Acute infection (incubation period)
b. Acute infection (acute phase)
c. Post infection (acute phase)
d. Immunization
e. HBV carrier state

Eric Goldman
Eric Goldman
Numerade Educator

Problem 482

Finding HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive, and IgM core antibody positive reflects
a. Acute infection (incubation period)
b. Acute infection (acute phase)
c. Post infection (acute phase)
d. Immunization
e. HBV carrier state

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Problem 483

Finding HBsAg positive, no antibodies to $\mathrm{HBsAg}$, and other tests variable reflects
a. Acute infection (incubation period)
b. Acute infection (acute phase)
c. Post infection (acute phase)
d. Immunization
e. HBV carrier state

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02:41

Problem 484

Finding antibodies to $\mathrm{HBsAg}$ reflects
a. Acute infection (incubation period)
b. Acute infection (acute phase)
c. Post infection (acute phase)
d. Immunization
e. HBV carrier state

Eric Goldman
Eric Goldman
Numerade Educator
03:19

Problem 485

Which of the following tests combines features of gel diffusion and immunoelectrophoresis and is applicable only to negatively charged antigens?
a. Latex agglutination (LA)
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
d. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
e. Coagglutination $(\mathrm{COA})$

Neha Chand
Neha Chand
Numerade Educator
01:04

Problem 486

Which of the following tests depends on the presence of protein A on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Latex agglutination (LA)
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
d. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
e. Coagglutination (COA)

Hast Aggarwal
Hast Aggarwal
Numerade Educator
01:31

Problem 487

Which of the following tests is homogeneous immunoassay and is preferred for detection of low-molecular-weight substances?
a. Latex agglutination (LA)
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
d. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
e. Coagglutination (COA)

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:04

Problem 488

Which of the following tests is used extensively to detect microbial antigens rapidly ( $5 \mathrm{~min}$ or less)? Inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody.
a. Latex agglutination (LA)
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
d. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
e. Coagglutination (COA)

Hast Aggarwal
Hast Aggarwal
Numerade Educator
01:31

Problem 489

Which of the following tests is heterogeneous immunoassay? Its detection system is based on enzymatic activity.
a. Latex agglutination (LA)
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)
d. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
e. Coagglutination (COA)

Joanna Quigley
Joanna Quigley
Numerade Educator
01:22

Problem 490

Failure of or improper methods for which step in the process will be the primary cause of high background color?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$
f. $F$

Prem Bijarniya
Prem Bijarniya
Numerade Educator
00:59

Problem 491

Where is unlabeled antibody attached if this enzyme immunoassay is intended for detection of antigen?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$
f. $F$

Andrei Demkov
Andrei Demkov
Numerade Educator
01:08

Problem 492

What is the location of the "solid phase"?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $E$
f. $F$

Aadit Sharma
Aadit Sharma
Numerade Educator

Problem 493

Addition of reagent at which step will cause color in the positive control well and reactive patient specimens?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $\mathrm{E}$
f. $F$

Check back soon!
01:15

Problem 494

What is the location of the patient specimen in the diagram?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. $\mathrm{E}$
f. $\mathrm{F}$

Qudsiya Anis
Qudsiya Anis
Numerade Educator
01:08

Problem 495

Antistreptolysin titer of 400 international units (IU) indicates which one of the following diseases?
a. Chronic infectious mononucleosis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Primary atypical pneumonia
e. Immunity to rubella (German measles)

Jorge Villanueva
Jorge Villanueva
Numerade Educator
01:27

Problem 496

Hemagglutination inhibition titer $(>1: 20)$ suggests which one of the following diseases?
a. Chronic infectious mononucleosis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Primary atypical pneumonia
e. Immunity to rubella (German measles)

Alexander Clippinger
Alexander Clippinger
Numerade Educator
01:08

Problem 497

Reactive cold agglutinins suggests which one of the following diseases?
a. Chronic infectious mononucleosis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Primary atypical pneumonia
e. Immunity to rubella (German measles)

Jorge Villanueva
Jorge Villanueva
Numerade Educator

Problem 498

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) VCA-IgG $1: 80$ and EBV antibody to early antigen (EA) 1:320 suggest which one of the following diseases?
a. Chronic infectious mononucleosis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Primary atypical pneumonia
e. Immunity to rubella (German measles)

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Problem 499

A reactive rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test suggests which one of the following diseases?
a. Chronic infectious mononucleosis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Scarlet fever
d. Primary atypical pneumonia
e. Immunity to rubella (German measles)

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Problem 500

A 31-year-old male patient complains of fatigue, yeast infection in his mouth, and enlarged lymph nodes under his arms. He said that he was involved in "high-risk" behavior 6 years ago while on a trip to eastern and southern Africa. He also indicated that his "HIV test" was negative. Which one of the following options would be most appropriate?
a. Initiate treatment for HIV disease
b. Order a test for human T cell leukemia virus (HTLV)
c. Repeat the test for HIV-1
d. Order an HIV test which would include antibodies to HIV-1 and HIV-2
e. Order an HIV-1 RNA PCR

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