The powerrank.com website (http:// thepowerrank.com/2014/06/06/world-cup-2014-winprobabilities-from-the-power-rank/) listed the probability of each team to win the 2014 World Cup in soccer as follows:
1. Brazil, $35.9 \%$.
2. Argentina, $10.0 \%$.
3. Spain, $8.9 \%$.
4. Germany, $7.4 \%$.
5. Netherlands, $5.7 \%$.
6. Portugal, $3.9 \%$.
7. France, $3.4 \%$.
8. England, $2.8 \%$.
9. Uruguay, $2.5 \%$.
10. Mexico, $2.5 \%$.
11. Italy, $2.3 \%$.
12. Ivory Coast, $2.0 \%$,
13. Colombia, $1.5 \%$.
14. Russia, $1.5 \%$.
15. United States, $1.1 \%$.
16. Chile, $1.0 \%$.
17. Croatia, $0.9 \%$
18. Ecuador, $0.8 \%$.
19. Nigeria, $0.8 \%$.
20. Switzerland, $0.7 \%$.
21. Greece, $0.6 \%$
22. $\operatorname{Iran}, 0.6 \%$.
23. Japan, $0.6 \%$.
24. Ghana, $0.6 \%$.
25. Belgium, $0.4 \%$.
26. Honduras, $0.3 \%$.
27. South Korea, $0.3 \%$.
28. Bosnia-Herzegovina, $0.3 \%$.
29. Costa Rica, $0.3 \%$.
30. Cameroon, $0.2 \%$.
31. Australia, $0.2 \%$.
32. Algeria, $0.1 \%$.
a. Interpret Brazil's probability of $35.9 \%,$ which was based on computer simulations of the tournament. Is it a relative frequency or a subjective interpretation of probability?
b. Germany would emerge as the actual winner of the 2014 World Cup. Does this indicate that the $7.4 \%$ chance of Germany winning, which was calculated before the tournament, should have been $100 \%$ instead?