A 21-year-old female presents with a complaint of severe pain on urination, subjective fever, and headache. She states that she has "bumps" on her vulva. She has no history of similar episodes. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option?
(A) Confirm the diagnosis by culture and treat with acyclovir $400 \mathrm{mg}$ tid for 7-10 days.
(B) Confirm the diagnosis by culture and treat with acyclovir $400 \mathrm{mg}$ bid daily.
(C) Confirm the diagnosis by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and treat with famciclovir $250 \mathrm{mg}$ tid for 7-10 days.
(D) Confirm the diagnosis by PCR and treat with valacyclovir $1 \mathrm{~g}$ bid for 7-10 days.