A 29-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after a high-speed motorcycle accident. The paramedics state that when they arrived on the scene, the patient's left knee appeared severely deformed, and a splint was immediately applied. Upon removal of the splint in the ED, you do not appreciate any obvious deformity but do note severe swelling of the joint. The patient is in severe pain at the knee, and you appreciate severe instability of the knee in multiple directions. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this patient?
(A) He most likely has a quadriceps tendon rupture and should be splinted in a knee immobilizer.
(B) Any effusion present should be immediately aspirated.
(C) This patient is at high risk for neurovascular injuries and should be admitted regardless of the neurovascular exam.
(D) Radiographs should be ordered to rule out a fracture, and the patient should receive prompt outpatient follow-up to evaluate potential ligamentous injuries.