A 30-year-old female with type 2 diabetes presents to the ED with a complaint of nausea, vomiting, polydipsia, and polyuria for a week. Despite being compliant with her oral hypoglycemic agents, her glucose checks at home have been in the 280-350 mg/dL range. Her screening urine test for $\beta$-hCG is positive. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
(A) Give an oral fluid challenge, double the oral hypoglycemic agent, and have the patient follow up with OB at the next available appointment.
(B) Give an oral fluid challenge, check electrolytes and serum glucose, and have the patient follow up with OB at the next available appointment.
(C) Give intravenous fluids, check electrolytes and serum glucose, double the oral hypoglycemic agent, and have the patient follow up with OB at the next available appointment.
(D) Give intravenous fluids, check electrolytes and serum glucose, stop the oral hypoglycemic agent, and call for an appointment with OB within the week.