A 48-year-old woman has developed stage III non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and nceds combination chemotherapy for treatment. Without therapy she has no hope of survival beyond a few weeks or months. With therapy she has an 80 percent chance of complete remission. She understands this entirely but insists that she simply does not want the therapy. There is no evidence of depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
a. Psychiatric evaluation.
b. Ask the family for their opinion.
c. Seek a court-appointed guardian.
d. Honor the patient's wishes.
e. Offer radiotherapy instead.
f. Risk management evaluation.