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A construction worker strikes a nail with a hammer twice with the same initial velocity $\left(v_{i}\right) .$ The first time, the hammer comes to rest after hitting the nail. The second time, the hammer recoils after hitting the nail and bounces back toward the worker. Assuming the contact time in both strikes is the same, in which strike did the nail exert a greater force on the hammer?(A) The first strike(B) The second strike(C) The nail exerted the same force for both strikes.(D) Cannot be determined

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Chapter 13

Practice Test 3

Section 1

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high in the given problem, mm hmm. The hammer is striking over the Neil. Then using Newton's 2nd Law of Motion. Force exerted by the hammer over the nail. Or we can say force experienced by the hammer by but by the Neil will be given by the time rate of change of linear momentum which is taking place in the hammer. Or we can say this is final momentum of the hammer minus initial momentum divided by the time duration. Now, guess what? When the hammer comes to rest after hitting the nail, then it's final momentum is zero. And suppose before hitting the nail the hammer was moving with the initial speed. We I so its initial momentum P. I. Uh sorry. We can say to beep even if its initial momentum P. One may be given as I am into V. I. So the force experienced by the hammer By then it will be given by zero M. B. I. Buy tea. Or we can say this is minus M. V. I by T. Here. This negative sign is for the opposite direction of force as compared with the las T. V. So if you see only for the magnitude of this force that is M V. I buy t. Now case too in case too the hammer comes back after hitting daniel with the same velocity. So we can say if its initial momentum P. Even was em into V. I. It's final momentum peter will become minus M. Times of V. I. Because the final speed becomes -3. That's why the final woman to means negative. So now The force experienced by we can say to be F two and initially suppose it was F one. So now this F two will be given as final momentum. P two minus pi even means this is minus envy I -2V. I divided by the same time as there is no change in the time duration, So it becomes -2 MVI By T. So if we compare it with F1, we conclude that this is too wise off a fund. So in second strike the nail exerts great greater force on hammer. In second strike the Neil will exert greater force on hammer. Hence we can see here another option. B is correct. Thank you.

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