a. If we applied the pattern of the coefficients to the coefficient of the first term in a binomial expansion, the coefficient would be $\frac{n !}{0 !(n-0) !}$. Show that this expression is 1.
b. If we applied the pattern of the coefficients to the coefficient of the last term in a binomial expansion, the coefficient would be $\frac{n !}{n !(n-n) !} .$ Show that this expression is 1.