00:01
In this problem you're given an infinite well and you're told the wave function at t equals zero is this quantity here and that's inside the well and zero elsewhere.
00:12
And it asks us some questions.
00:14
The first being what is the wave function as a function of time in addition.
00:20
So let's look at that now, part a.
00:23
Now the time dependent, shown in this equation, that involves the expression that comes from that, the time aspect, involves the energy.
00:36
So we need to look into this to see what are the, how can we write this in terms of energy eigenstates.
00:44
That's what we need as you're going to see.
00:47
So let me write out those eigenstates.
00:50
I'll use a phi to identify those.
00:54
So these are the energy eigenstates.
01:03
And this is equal to the square root of two over l, sine n pi x over l.
01:13
The energy associated with each of those is n squared pi squared h bar squared over 2ml squared.
01:23
And n runs from one and two and beyond.
01:30
So they made this very easy for us.
01:32
We can easily see that this, sometimes it's hard to actually see.
01:38
It's such a complicated thing that you actually have to go through the proper procedure, mathematical procedure to get the actual, what actually is the expansion into the eigenstates.
01:52
What are the coefficients really of each of those eigenstates.
01:56
But here it's very easy.
01:58
This will be phi one, phi two.
02:03
So psi of x, one plus i over two, phi one plus one over the square root of two, phi two.
02:15
There we have it.
02:16
So we now have it in terms of energy eigenstates.
02:20
Now the idea, the superposition that takes place, this takes, is the same at all times.
02:29
So really you can almost reverse the process.
02:31
You can think of psi x t as superposition of the time dependent energy eigenstate for one, energy e1, and the time dependent for e2.
02:45
And then it just happens to work at t equals zero, then certainly that'll be true also.
02:51
So that's how you think about it.
02:53
So we really need the solution of the time dependent schrodinger equation in here.
03:00
And in here, if i want the time dependent wave function.
03:04
So let me write that out.
03:06
Psi of x t, one plus i over two, psi one of x, exponential.
03:14
This is the time part that would have come from the time dependent schrodinger equation.
03:29
And then we do it for the other term.
03:40
Okay, there we have it.
03:41
So again, this whole thing is the solution of the time dependent schrodinger equation.
03:49
That's how it works.
03:51
So that's how we think of the superpositions.
03:54
And let me write out what the energies are, the formula for that.
03:58
E1 pi squared h bar squared, or two m l squared.
04:06
E2, just four e1.
04:09
If you remember, you look at the formula, four e1.
04:12
So four pi squared h bar squared, two m l squared.
04:18
And this just can be reduced to two pi squared h bar squared m l squared.
04:30
So there's our two energies.
04:32
Now we can write out the wave function with that included.
04:36
I'm not gonna put in the sign, the original pieces.
04:40
We don't need them.
04:41
We're never gonna be integrating over x to actually need that.
04:45
But we do need to look at the time aspect.
04:47
So i'll write that out explicitly.
04:56
So just putting in e1 minus i pi squared h bar t over two m l squared.
05:03
Remember there is an h bar already.
05:06
So the h bar squared becomes h bar plus one over square root of two, phi two x exponential minus i two pi squared h bar t over m l squared.
05:23
There we have it.
05:24
So there is our wave function as a function of time.
05:30
And certainly, it works at t equals zero, also it has to.
05:38
Okay, that was part a.
05:42
Part b wants to know the expectation value of the energy.
05:46
And that's found by multiplying the probability of e1 times e1 plus the probability of e2 times e2.
06:00
So you might say, this is something unusual, not really.
06:04
How do you get probability here? got 10 ,000 measurements, 6 ,000 of them are e1, 4 ,000 are e2.
06:13
The probability for e1 is 6 ,000 divided by 10 ,000 .6.
06:17
Probability for e2 is 4 ,000 divided by 10 ,000 .4.
06:22
Notice it adds to one, which it has to because you're only gonna get e1 or e2.
06:25
You're not gonna get anything else.
06:28
Also, that 0 .4 can also be thought of as one minus the probability of e2 is one minus the probability of e1, same thing.
06:39
So all depends.
06:43
Now, how do we get the probability? let me write it out, then i'll explain it.
06:58
Let's look first at the integral.
07:00
This is the inner product, scalar product, dot product.
07:04
It tells me the phi1 component of psi, just like i dot f gives me the x component of f.
07:15
Exactly the same thing...