Question

(Self-financing trading). The fundamental idea behind noarbitrage pricing is to reproduce the payoff of a derivative security by trading in the underlying asset (which we call a stock) and the money market account. In discrete time, we let $X_k$ denote the value of the hedging portfolio at time $k$ and let $\Delta_k$ denote the number of shares of stock held between times $k$ and $k+1$. Then, at time $k$, after rebalancing (i.e., moving from a position of $\Delta_{k-1}$ to a position $\Delta_k$ in the stock), the amount in the money market account is $X_k-S_k \Delta_k$. The value of the portfolio at time $k+1$ is $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r)\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right) . $$ 194 4 Stochastic Calculus This formula can be rearranged to become $$ X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right), $$ which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on the stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the interest earnings on the money market account, $r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right)$. The continuous-time analogue of $(4.10 .8)$ is $$ d X(t)=\Delta(t) d S(t)+r(X(t)-\Delta(t) S(t)) d t . $$ Alternatively, one could define the value of a share of the money market account at time $k$ to be $$ M_k=(1+r)^k $$ and formulate the discrete-time model with two processes, $\Delta_k$ as before and $\Gamma_k$ denoting the number of shares of the money market account held at time $k$ after rebalancing. Then $$ X_k=\Delta_k S_k+\Gamma_k M_k $$ so that (4.10.7) becomes $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r) \Gamma_k M_k=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+\Gamma_k M_{k+1} . $$ Subtracting (4.10.10) from (4.10.11), we obtain in place of (4.10.8) the equation $$ X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right), $$ which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the earnings from the money market investment, $\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right)$. But $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$ cannot be chosen arbitrarily. The agent arrives at time $k+1$ with some portfolio of $\Delta_k$ shares of stock and $\Gamma_k$ shares of the money market account and then rebalances. In terms of $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$, the value of the portfolio upon arrival at time $k+1$ is given by (4.10.11). After rebalancing, it is $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_{k+1} S_{k+1}+\Gamma_{k+1} M_{k+1} . $$ Setting these two values equal, we obtain the discrete-time self-financing con-

   (Self-financing trading). The fundamental idea behind noarbitrage pricing is to reproduce the payoff of a derivative security by trading in the underlying asset (which we call a stock) and the money market account. In discrete time, we let $X_k$ denote the value of the hedging portfolio at time $k$ and let $\Delta_k$ denote the number of shares of stock held between times $k$ and $k+1$. Then, at time $k$, after rebalancing (i.e., moving from a position of $\Delta_{k-1}$ to a position $\Delta_k$ in the stock), the amount in the money market account is $X_k-S_k \Delta_k$. The value of the portfolio at time $k+1$ is
$$
X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r)\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right) .
$$
194
4 Stochastic Calculus
This formula can be rearranged to become
$$
X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right),
$$
which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on the stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the interest earnings on the money market account, $r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right)$. The continuous-time analogue of $(4.10 .8)$ is
$$
d X(t)=\Delta(t) d S(t)+r(X(t)-\Delta(t) S(t)) d t .
$$

Alternatively, one could define the value of a share of the money market account at time $k$ to be
$$
M_k=(1+r)^k
$$
and formulate the discrete-time model with two processes, $\Delta_k$ as before and $\Gamma_k$ denoting the number of shares of the money market account held at time $k$ after rebalancing. Then
$$
X_k=\Delta_k S_k+\Gamma_k M_k
$$
so that (4.10.7) becomes
$$
X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r) \Gamma_k M_k=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+\Gamma_k M_{k+1} .
$$

Subtracting (4.10.10) from (4.10.11), we obtain in place of (4.10.8) the equation
$$
X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right),
$$
which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the earnings from the money market investment, $\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right)$.

But $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$ cannot be chosen arbitrarily. The agent arrives at time $k+1$ with some portfolio of $\Delta_k$ shares of stock and $\Gamma_k$ shares of the money market account and then rebalances. In terms of $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$, the value of the portfolio upon arrival at time $k+1$ is given by (4.10.11). After rebalancing, it is
$$
X_{k+1}=\Delta_{k+1} S_{k+1}+\Gamma_{k+1} M_{k+1} .
$$

Setting these two values equal, we obtain the discrete-time self-financing con-
Show more…
Stochastic Calculus for Finance II : Continuous-Time Models
Stochastic Calculus for Finance II : Continuous-Time Models
Steven E. Shreve 1st Edition
Chapter 4, Problem 10 ↓

Instant Answer

verified

Step 1

- **Stock ($S_k$)**: The price of the stock at time $k$. - **Money Market Account ($M_k$)**: The value of the money market account at time $k$, which grows at a risk-free rate $r$, so $M_k = (1+r)^k$. - **Portfolio ($X_k$)**: The total value of the hedging  Show more…

Show all steps

lock
AceChat toggle button
Close icon
Ace pointing down

Please give Ace some feedback

Your feedback will help us improve your experience

Thumb up icon Thumb down icon
Thanks for your feedback!
Profile picture
(Self-financing trading). The fundamental idea behind noarbitrage pricing is to reproduce the payoff of a derivative security by trading in the underlying asset (which we call a stock) and the money market account. In discrete time, we let $X_k$ denote the value of the hedging portfolio at time $k$ and let $\Delta_k$ denote the number of shares of stock held between times $k$ and $k+1$. Then, at time $k$, after rebalancing (i.e., moving from a position of $\Delta_{k-1}$ to a position $\Delta_k$ in the stock), the amount in the money market account is $X_k-S_k \Delta_k$. The value of the portfolio at time $k+1$ is $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r)\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right) . $$ 194 4 Stochastic Calculus This formula can be rearranged to become $$ X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right), $$ which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on the stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the interest earnings on the money market account, $r\left(X_k-\Delta_k S_k\right)$. The continuous-time analogue of $(4.10 .8)$ is $$ d X(t)=\Delta(t) d S(t)+r(X(t)-\Delta(t) S(t)) d t . $$ Alternatively, one could define the value of a share of the money market account at time $k$ to be $$ M_k=(1+r)^k $$ and formulate the discrete-time model with two processes, $\Delta_k$ as before and $\Gamma_k$ denoting the number of shares of the money market account held at time $k$ after rebalancing. Then $$ X_k=\Delta_k S_k+\Gamma_k M_k $$ so that (4.10.7) becomes $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+(1+r) \Gamma_k M_k=\Delta_k S_{k+1}+\Gamma_k M_{k+1} . $$ Subtracting (4.10.10) from (4.10.11), we obtain in place of (4.10.8) the equation $$ X_{k+1}-X_k=\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)+\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right), $$ which says that the gain between time $k$ and time $k+1$ is the sum of the capital gain on stock holdings, $\Delta_k\left(S_{k+1}-S_k\right)$, and the earnings from the money market investment, $\Gamma_k\left(M_{k+1}-M_k\right)$. But $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$ cannot be chosen arbitrarily. The agent arrives at time $k+1$ with some portfolio of $\Delta_k$ shares of stock and $\Gamma_k$ shares of the money market account and then rebalances. In terms of $\Delta_k$ and $\Gamma_k$, the value of the portfolio upon arrival at time $k+1$ is given by (4.10.11). After rebalancing, it is $$ X_{k+1}=\Delta_{k+1} S_{k+1}+\Gamma_{k+1} M_{k+1} . $$ Setting these two values equal, we obtain the discrete-time self-financing con-
Close icon
Play audio
Feedback
Powered by NumerAI
*

Labs

-

Want to see this concept in action?

NEW

Explore this concept interactively to see how it behaves as you change inputs.

View Labs

*

Key Concepts

-
Self-Financing Portfolio
A self-financing portfolio is one in which any change in the portfolio’s value is solely due to changes in the values of its constituent assets, without any external infusion or withdrawal of cash. This concept is fundamental to many financial models, as it ensures that gains and losses arise exclusively from market movements and the trading strategy itself.
No-Arbitrage Pricing
No-arbitrage pricing is the principle that in an efficient market, two portfolios with the same future cash flows must have the same current price. This principle is used to derive the fair price of derivative securities by constructing portfolios that replicate their payoffs, thereby ruling out the possibility of a riskless profit.
Hedging and Replicating Portfolios
A hedging or replicating portfolio is designed to mimic the payoff of a derivative security through a combination of positions in the underlying asset and other financial instruments, such as a risk-free asset. The goal is to manage risk and eliminate exposure to market fluctuations by dynamically adjusting the portfolio’s components.
Discrete-Time and Continuous-Time Modeling
Discrete-time models break time into separate intervals, making it possible to analyze portfolio rebalancing and asset price changes at individual time steps. Continuous-time models extend these ideas by considering infinitesimally small time increments, which leads to differential equations governing the dynamics of asset prices and portfolio values.
Money Market Account
The money market account represents a risk-free asset that earns a fixed interest rate over time. It is often used as the benchmark in portfolio construction and derivative pricing, and its evolution plays a critical role in the self-financing condition and in replicating strategies where the portfolio's cash balance is invested in this account.

*

Recommended Videos

-
exercise-211-put-call-parity-consider-stock-that-pays-o-dividend-in-an-n-period-binorial-mnodel-european-call-has-payoff-cn-sn-k-at-tirne-n-the-price-cr-ofthis-call-at-carlier-tirnes-is-give-39287

Exercise 2.11 (Put-call parity). Consider a stock that pays no dividend in an N-period binomial model. A European call has a payoff of CN (SN - K) at time N. The price Cn of this call at earlier times is given by the risk-neutral pricing formula (2.4.11): Cn = En [(CN) / (1 + r)^(N-n)], n = 0, 1, ..., N-1. Consider also a put with a payoff of PN (K - SN) at time N, whose price at earlier times is Pn = En [(PN) / (1 + r)^(N-n)], n = 0, 1, ..., N-1. Finally, consider a forward contract to buy one share of stock at time N for K dollars. The price of this contract at time N is FN = SN - K and its price at earlier times is Fn = En [(FN) / (1 + r)^(N-n)], n = 0, 1, ..., N-1. (Note that, unlike the call, the forward contract requires that the stock be purchased at time N for K dollars and has a negative payoff if SN < K). (i) If at time zero you buy a forward contract and a put, and hold them until expiration, explain why the payoff you receive is the same as the payoff of the call; i.e., explain why CN = FN + PN. (ii) Using the risk-neutral pricing formulas given above for Cn, Pn, and Fn and the linearity of conditional expectations, show that Cn = Fn + Pn for every n. (iii) Using the fact that the discounted stock price is a martingale under the risk-neutral measure, show that F0 = S0 - K / (1 + r)^N. (iv) Suppose you begin at time zero with F0, buy one share of stock, borrowing money as necessary to do that, and make no further trades. Show that at time N you have a portfolio valued at FN. (This is called static replication of the forward contract. If you sell the forward contract for F0 at time zero, you can use this static replication to hedge your short position in the forward contract). (v) The forward price of the stock at time zero is defined to be that value of K that causes the forward contract to have price zero at time zero. The forward price in this model is (1 + r)^N S0. Show that, at time zero, the price of a call struck at the forward price is the same as the price of a put struck at the forward price. This fact is called put-call parity. (vi) If we choose K = (1 + r)^N S0, we just saw in (v) that C0 = P0. Do we have Cn = Pn for every n?

Need help? Use Ace
Ace is your personal tutor. It breaks down any question with clear steps so you can learn.
Start Using Ace
Ace is your personal tutor for learning
Step-by-step explanations
Instant summaries
Summarize YouTube videos
Understand textbook images or PDFs
Study tools like quizzes and flashcards
Listen to your notes as a podcast
Continue solving this problem
Create a free account to:
  • View full step-by-step solution
  • Ask follow-up questions with Ace AI
  • Save progress and study later
Continue Free
Join the community

18,000,000+

Students on Numerade


Trusted by students at 8,000+ universities

Numerade

Get step-by-step video solution
from top educators

Continue with Clever
or



By creating an account, you agree to the Terms of Service and Privacy Policy
Already have an account? Log In

A free answer
just for you

Watch the video solution with this free unlock.

Numerade

Log in to watch this video
...and 100,000,000 more!


EMAIL

PASSWORD

OR
Continue with Clever