Firm 1 and Firm 2 use the same type of production function, but Firm 1 is only $90 \%$ as productive as Firm $2 .$ That is, the production function of Firm 2 is $q_{2}=f(L, K),$ and the production function of Firm 1 is $q_{1}=0.9 f(L, K) .$ At a particular level of inputs, how does the marginal product of labor differ between the firms?