For a free particle in one dimension, calculate the variance at time $t,(\Delta x)_t^2 \equiv$ $\left\langle\left(x-\langle x\rangle_t\right)^2\right\rangle_t=\left\langle x^2\right\rangle_t-\langle x\rangle_t^2$ without explicit use of the wave function by applying (3.44) repeatedly. Show that
$$
(\Delta x)_t^2=(\Delta x)_0^2+\frac{2}{m}\left[\frac{1}{2}\left\langle x p_x+p_x x\right\rangle_0-\langle x\rangle_0\left\langle p_x\right\rangle\right] t+\frac{\left(\Delta p_x\right)^2}{m^2} t^2
$$
and
$$
\left(\Delta p_x\right)_t^2=\left(\Delta p_x\right)_0^2=\left(\Delta p_x\right)^2
$$