Question
For each pair of inverse functions, show that $\left(f \circ f^{-1}\right)(x)=x$ and $\left(f^{-1} \circ f\right)(x)=x$.$f(x)=\frac{1}{2} x+3, f^{-1}(x)=2 x-6$
Step 1
This means we need to plug in $f^{-1}(x)$ into the function $f(x)$: $f(f^{-1}(x)) = \frac{1}{2}(2x - 6) + 3$ Now, let's simplify the expression: $f(f^{-1}(x)) = x - 3 + 3$ $f(f^{-1}(x)) = x$ Show more…
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