Question
From $y=c_{1}+c_{2} x^{2}$ we find $y^{\prime}=2 c_{2} x .$ Then $y(0)=c_{1}=0, y^{\prime}(0)=2 c_{2} \cdot 0=0$ and hence $y^{\prime}(0)=1$ is not possible. since $a_{2}(x)=x$ is 0 at $x=0,$ Theorem 3.1 is not violated.
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Step 1: We are given the function $y = c_1 + c_2x^2$ and its derivative $y' = 2c_2x$. Show more…
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