Question
Given that $f^{\prime}(x)>g^{\prime}(x)$ for all real $x$ and $f(0)=g(0)$, then(A) $f(x)>g(x) \forall x \in(0, \infty)$(B) $f(x)<g(x) \forall x \in(-\infty, 0)$(C) $f(x)<g(x) \forall x \in(0, \infty)$(D) $f(x)>g(x) \forall x \in(-\infty, 0)$
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Step 1: Let's define a new function $h(x) = f(x) - g(x)$. Show more…
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