Question
If $f(x)=f(2 x-x)$, then $\int_{0}^{2=1} f(x) d x$ is equal to(a) $\int_{a}^{0} f(2 a-x) d x \quad$ (b) $2 \int_{0}^{0} f(x) d x \quad$ (c) $-2 \int_{0}^{a} f(x) d x \quad(d)$
Step 1
This simplifies to $f(x) = f(x)$, which means the function is equal to itself. Show more…
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