If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to $(1 / \mathrm{R})\left(\right.$ and not as $\left.1 / \mathrm{R}^{2}\right)$ where $\mathrm{R}$ is separation between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a force would have its orbital speed v proportional to
(A) $\left(1 / \mathrm{R}^{2}\right)$
(B) $\mathrm{R}^{0}$
(C) $\mathrm{R}^{1}$
(D) $(1 / \mathrm{R})$