Question
Let $f : X \rightarrow Y$ be bijective. Let $S$ and $T$ be subsets of $Y .$ Prove each.$$f^{-1}(S \cup T)=f^{-1}(S) \cup f^{-1}(T)$$
Step 1
Let's take an arbitrary element $x \in f^{-1}(S \cup T)$. This means that $f(x) \in S \cup T$. Show more…
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