Let $F_{1}$ and $F_{2}$ be CDFs, $0<p<1$, and $F(x)=p F_{1}(x)+(1-p) F_{2}(x)$ for all $x$.
(a) Show directly that $F$ has the properties of a valid CDF (see Theorem 3.6.3). The distribution defined by $F$ is called a mixture of the distributions defined by $F_{1}$ and $F_{2}$.
(b) Consider creating an r.v. in the following way. Flip a coin with probability $p$ of Heads. If the coin lands Heads, generate an r.v. according to $F_{1}$; if the coin lands Tails, generate an r.v. according to $F_{2}$. Show that the r.v. obtained in this way has CDF $F$.