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# Let $f(x) = 2 - | 2x - 1 |$. Show that there is no value of $c$ such that $f(3) - f(0) = f'(c)(3 - 0)$. Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

## This does not contradict Mean Value theorem, because it is not applicable.Hint : Look at the derivative of $f(x)$ at $x=\frac{1}{2}$

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