Question
Let $f(x)=(x-3)^{-2}$ . Show that there is no value of $c$ in $(1,4)$ such that $f(4)-f(1)=f^{\prime}(c)(4-1) .$ Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?
Step 1
The function $f(x)$ is given by $f(x)=(x-3)^{-2}$. The derivative of $f(x)$ is given by $f'(x) = -2(x-3)^{-3}$. Show more…
Show all steps
Your feedback will help us improve your experience
Stephen Hobbs and 81 other Calculus 1 / AB educators are ready to help you.
Ask a new question
Labs
Want to see this concept in action?
Explore this concept interactively to see how it behaves as you change inputs.
Key Concepts
Recommended Videos
Let $ f(x) = (x - 3)^{-2} $. Show that there is no value of $ c $ in $ (1, 4) $ such that $ f(4) - f(1) = f'(c)(4 - 1) $. Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?
Applications of Differentiation
The Mean Value Theorem
Let $f(x)=(x-3)^{-2}$. Show that there is no value of $c$ in $(1,4)$ such that $f(4)-f(1)=f^{\prime}(c)(4-1)$. Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?
Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2 Show that there is no value of c in (1, 4) such that f(4) - f(1) = f '(c)(4 - 1). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?
Transcript
18,000,000+
Students on Numerade
Trusted by students at 8,000+ universities
Watch the video solution with this free unlock.
EMAIL
PASSWORD