Question
Let $f(x)=x^{2}$ and $g(x)=1 / x .$ Compute $f[g(x)]$ and $g[f(x)]$ and note that the results are identical. Then say why fand $g$ do not qualify as a pair of inverse functions.
Step 1
This means we substitute $g(x)$ into the function $f(x)$. So, we have $f[g(x)] = f(1/x) = (1/x)^2 = 1/x^2$. Show more…
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Let $f(x)=x^{2}$ and $g(x)=1 / x .$ Compute $f[g(x)]$ and $g[f(x)]$ and note that the results are identical. Then say why $f$ and $g$ do not qualify as a pair of inverse functions.
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