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Problem

Let $X$ have a Weibull distribution with shape pa…

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Problem 140 Problem 141 Problem 142 Problem 143 Problem 144 Problem 145 Problem 146 Problem 147 Problem 148 Problem 149 Problem 150 Problem 151 Problem 152 Problem 153 Problem 154 Problem 155 Problem 156 Problem 157 Problem 158 Problem 159 Problem 160 Problem 161 Problem 162 Problem 163 Problem 164 Problem 165 Problem 166 Problem 167 Problem 168 Problem 169 Problem 170 Problem 171 Problem 172

Problem 168 Easy Difficulty

Let $X$ have the pdf $f(x)=1 /\left[\pi\left(1+x^{2}\right)\right]$ for $-\infty< x<\infty($ a central Cauchy distribution), and show that $Y=1 / X$ has the same distribution. [Hint: Consider $P(1 Y | \leq y),$ the cdf of $|Y|,$ then obtain its pdf and show it is identical to the pdf of $|X| . ]$

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Intro Stats / AP Statistics

Probability with Applications in Engineering, Science, and Technology

Chapter 3

Continuous Random Variables and Probability Distributions

Section 9

Supplementary Exercises

Related Topics

Continuous Random Variables

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Watch More Solved Questions in Chapter 3

Problem 140
Problem 141
Problem 142
Problem 143
Problem 144
Problem 145
Problem 146
Problem 147
Problem 148
Problem 149
Problem 150
Problem 151
Problem 152
Problem 153
Problem 154
Problem 155
Problem 156
Problem 157
Problem 158
Problem 159
Problem 160
Problem 161
Problem 162
Problem 163
Problem 164
Problem 165
Problem 166
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Problem 171
Problem 172

Video Transcript

Okay, so we know that the function why has a point of discontinuity at X is equal to zero. Therefore, you can split the function domain into the two separate intervals Negative infinity to zero on day zero to positive infinity Thanks belongs in the first interval. Then why is going to decrease from zero zero to negative infinity? And if it actually belongs to a second interval done, why decreases from infinity? Tuju? It's a topic in general, use the general roof for transferring the random variable on therefore the pdf off the transformed random variable is a function Why that shit Thanks Times a job Why I'm sketch press Why and for the caution distribution we have is if each X you go to one over pi Why squared over one plus lightsquared Negative infinity That's why I just is young on the pdf will have the same form of the second triple A swell conservative The inverse one show of the wider y variable is h prime of y physical to negative one over escape. So therefore, pdf off the transform variable which is the Koshi distribution simply f wide. She was won over by Y squared That's why squaring so ice cream, which is simply equal. Hi. Over times one one y squared plus one. Okay, just cancel it this way, school.

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Matthew A. Carlton • Jay L. Devore

Probability with Applications in Engineering, Science, and Technology

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