Let $Y_{1}<Y_{2}<\cdots<Y_{n}$ be the order statistics of a random sample from a $N\left(\theta, \sigma^{2}\right),-\infty<\theta<\infty$, distribution. Show that the distribution of $Z=Y_{n}-\bar{X}$ does not depend upon $\theta$. Thus $\bar{Y}=\sum_{1}^{n} Y_{i} / n$, a complete sufficient statistic for $\theta$ is independent of $Z$.