00:01
So we have a linear function f going from a to b we're claiming that it has an inverse if and only if it is both one to one and onto so first, let's assume that f has an inverse has an inverse has an inverse an inverse, call it f minus one such that f composed f inverse equals, let's see f inverse has to be from b to a let's make a better b here this is from b to a back to b.
00:41
So this is the identity on b and f inverse composed f is the identity on a now what you see here is that in order for this to be true f has to be a bijection on just as a set function, right? f is injective because if f of x equals f of y then we can apply f inverse to it right and we get x equals y.
01:17
There we go and we have y is some element of b and f inverse of y has to be some element of a in a and f of f inverse of y equals y of course in particular then y is in the image of f.
01:35
So f is onto so that part's relatively easy, right? we don't even need linearity if f has an inverse for a set with any type of structure vector space or otherwise then f has to be both one to one and onto something something forgetful functor the in the converse here is gonna be a little bit trickier let's say that f is one to one and onto then it has an inverse as a set function and define f inverse from b to a as as just a set function which is to say we know that f has an inverse function we don't know that f inverse is a linear function and that's what that's what we need to prove now we claim that f inverse is linear to this point first, we'll show that it commutes with addition let b1 and b2 be elements of b such that f of a1 is equal to b1 and f of a2 is equal to b2 right, so then f inverse of b1 plus b2 see, what is that? well we have to this we're gonna consider f of a1 plus a2 right.
03:10
This is equal to f of a1 plus f of a2 by the linearity of f which is equal to b1 plus b2 right, this is all true by the linearity of f.
03:30
Now if we apply f inverse to all of this which we can do right f inverse of f is equal to the identity, so this just becomes a1 plus a2 this is all now f inverse of we can skip over here b1 plus b2 right? we're just skipping from the middle part over to this last inequality and so f of b1 plus b2 is equal to simply a1 plus a2 but since f inverse is the in fact the inverse of f a2 has to equal to f inverse of b2 and a1 has to equal f inverse of a1 because if we apply f to both sides then it'll cancel out the f inverse and that was how we defined...