Recall that $b(k ; n, p)$ is the notation for the probability that a binomial random variable with parameters $n$ and $p$ assumes the value $k$; that is,
$$
b(k ; n, p)=\left(\begin{array}{l}
n \\
k
\end{array}\right) p^k(1-p)^{n-k} .
$$
Consider the sequence $b(0 ; n, p), b(1 ; n, p), \ldots, b(n ; n, p)$.
(a) Show that the term $b(k ; n, p)$ is greater than $b(k-1 ; n, p)$ for $1 \leq k<(n+1) p$ and is smaller for $k>(n+1) p$.
(b) Show also that, if $(n+1) p=m$ is an integer, then $b(m ; n, p)=$ $b(m-1 ; n, p)$.
Note: Since there is exactly one integer $m$ such that $(n+1) p-1<$ $m \leq(n+1) p$, we see by (a) that the maximum value in the sequence is $b(m ; n, p)$. It is called the central term or the "the most probable number of successes". For example, if $n=19$ and $p=0.4$, then $m=8$ and the maximum value of $b(k ; 19,0.4)$ is
$$
\begin{aligned}
b(8 ; 19,0.4) & =\left(\begin{array}{c}
19 \\
8
\end{array}\right) 0.4^8 0.6^{11} \\
& =0.179705788 \\
& =\left(\begin{array}{c}
19 \\
7
\end{array}\right) 0.4^7 0.6^{12} \\
& =b(7 ; 19,0.4) .
\end{aligned}
$$