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Ross said that if $(x-a)(x-b)=0$ means that $(x-a)=0$ or $(x-b)=0$ , then $(x-a)(x-b)=2$ means that $(x-a)=2$ or $(x-b)=2 .$ Do you agree with Ross? Explain why or why not.

No

Algebra

Chapter 1

THE INTEGERS

Section 7

Quadratic Equations with Integral Roots

The Integers

Equations and Inequalities

Polynomials

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in this question says that Ross said that if exercise a times X minus people zero, it means that X minus a. It's nice A equals zero or X minus people zero. And that is true, he's saying. Then if we have on that special right, do we have X minus a times X minus B peoples to it means that X minus A equals two or X minus. People's too. And our job is to say, If we agree, why not so kind of looking at its surface? You might think OK, by that same logic, that must be true. What thing is with zero, if you have zero times, any number is going to equal zero. But that's not the same for two. If we have two times four is going to give us eight, it's not going to give us that, too. So we can't just say, Oh, if X minus Abel's Tu auras when people's too that's disregarding with the other term is that's not something that we know for certain is true. Zero. We know that one of them has to be zero, because zero times anything is zero with two. That is not the case, we could have something like one of them equals 1/2 and one of them equals four. Or we have, ah one over eight times 16. That will still give us too. So you can't assume that as mine is able to or five meals a two because that means you're also assuming the other term must be equal to one which get assumptions that you cannot make.

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