Show that the inverse of $L=\left(\begin{array}{lll}1 & 0 & 0 \\ a & 1 & 0 \\ b & 0 & 1\end{array}\right)$ is $L^{-1}=\left(\begin{array}{rrr}1 & 0 & 0 \\ -a & 1 & 0 \\ -b & 0 & 1\end{array}\right)$. However, the inverse of $M=\left(\begin{array}{lll}1 & 0 & 0 \\ a & 1 & 0 \\ b & c & 1\end{array}\right)$ is not $\left(\begin{array}{rrr}1 & 0 & 0 \\ -a & 1 & 0 \\ -b & -c & 1\end{array}\right)$. What is $M^{-1}$ ?