Suppose that a regression relationship is given by the following:
$$
\gamma=\beta_0+\beta_1 X_1+\beta_2 X_2+\varepsilon
$$
If the simple linear regression of $Y$ on $X_1$ is estimated from a sample of $n$ observations, the resulting slope estimate is generally biased for $\beta_1$. However, in the special case where the sample correlation between $X_1$ and $X_2$ is 0 , this will not be so. In fact, in that case the same estimate results whether or not $X_2$ is included in the regression equation.
a. Explain verbally why this statement is true.
b. Show algebraically that this statement is true.