Suppose that we take a sample of size $n_{1}$ from a normally distributed population with mean and variance $\mu_{1}$ and $\sigma_{1}^{2}$ and an independent of sample size $n_{2}$ from a normally distributed population with mean and variance $\mu_{2}$ and $\sigma_{2}^{2} .$ If it is reasonable to assume that $\sigma_{1}^{2}=\sigma_{2}^{2},$ then the results given in Section 8.8 apply.
What can be done if we cannot assume that the unknown variances are equal but are fortunate enough to know that $\sigma_{2}^{2}=k \sigma_{1}^{2}$ for some known constant $k \neq 1 ?$ Suppose, as previously, that the sample means are given by $\bar{Y}_{1}$ and $\bar{Y}_{2}$ and the sample variances by $S_{1}^{2}$ and $S_{2}^{2}$, respectively.
a. Show that $Z^{\star}$ given below has a standard normal distribution.
$$Z^{*}=\frac{\left(\bar{Y}_{1}-\bar{Y}_{2}\right)-\left(\mu_{1}-\mu_{2}\right)}{\sigma_{1} \sqrt{\frac{1}{n_{1}}+\frac{k}{n_{2}}}}$$
b. Show that $W^{\star}$ given below has a $\chi^{2}$ distribution with $n_{1}+n_{2}-2$ df.
$$W^{*}=\frac{\left(n_{1}-1\right) S_{1}^{2}+\left(n_{2}-1\right) S_{2}^{2} / k}{\sigma_{1}^{2}}$$
c. Notice that $Z^{\star}$ and $W^{\star}$ from parts (a) and (b) are independent. Finally, show that
$$T^{*}=\frac{\left(\bar{Y}_{1}-\bar{Y}_{2}\right)-\left(\mu_{1}-\mu_{2}\right)}{S_{p}^{*} \sqrt{\frac{1}{n_{1}}+\frac{k}{n_{2}}}}, \quad \text { where } S_{p}^{2 *}=\frac{\left(n_{1}-1\right) S_{1}^{2}+\left(n_{2}-1\right) S_{2}^{2} / k}{n_{1}+n_{2}-2}$$
has a $t$ distribution with $n_{1}+n_{2}-2$ df.
d. Use the result in part (c) to give a $100(1-\alpha) \%$ confidence interval for $\mu_{1}-\mu_{2},$ assuming that $\sigma_{2}^{2}=k \sigma_{1}^{2}$
e. What happens if $k=1$ in parts $(\mathrm{a}),(\mathrm{b}),(\mathrm{c}),$ and $(\mathrm{d}) ?$