Suppose that $X_{1}$ and $X_{2}$ are independent random variables having a common mean $\mu$. Suppose also that $\operatorname{Var}\left(X_{1}\right)=\sigma_{1}^{2}$ and $\operatorname{Var}\left(X_{2}\right)=\sigma_{2}^{2} .$ The value of $\mu$ is unknown and it is proposed to estimate $\mu$ by a weighted average of $X_{1}$ and $X_{2}$. That is, $\lambda X_{1}+(1-\lambda) X_{2}$ will be used as an estimate of $\mu$, for some appropriate value of $\lambda$. Which value of $\lambda$ yields the estimate having the lowest possible variance? Explain why it is desirable to use this value of $\lambda$.