The parameters of a GARCH $(1,1)$ model are estimated as $\omega=0.000004, \alpha=0.05$, and $\beta=0.92$. What is the long-run average volatility and what is the equation describing the way that the variance rate reverts to its long-run average? If the current volatility is $20 \%$ per year, what is the expected volatility in 20 days?