Question
Therefore, $(p \vee \sim q) \wedge(\sim p \vee \sim q) \equiv \sim q$.Use Theorem 2.1.1 to verify the logical equivalences in $50-54$. Supply a reason for each step. $\sim(p \vee \sim q) \vee(\sim p \wedge \sim q) \equiv \sim p$
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Use De Morgan's laws to verify each. (Hint: $p \rightarrow q \equiv \sim p \vee q )$ $$ \sim(\sim p \vee \sim q) \equiv p \wedge q $$
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