Question
Use the Squeeze Theorem and Corollary 1.1 to prove that the sequence converges to 0 (given that $$.\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n}=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n^{2}}=0)$$.$$a_{n}=(-1)^{n} \frac{e^{-n}}{n}$$
Step 1
We know that $(-1)^n$ alternates between -1 and 1 for each integer value of n. Therefore, we can say that $-1 \leq (-1)^n \leq 1$. Show more…
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