Question
Why are both the $x$ -coordinate and the $y$ -coordinate generally needed to find the slope of the tangent line at a point for an implicitly defined function?
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Why are both the x-coordinate and the y-coordinate generally needed to find the slope of the tangent line at a point for an implicitly defined function? Choose the correct answer below: Because when derived implicitly, two formulas for the slope are obtained - one in terms of x and one in terms of y. Because when derived implicitly, the formula for the slope is usually given in terms of both x and y.
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Why should the graphs of $f(x, y)=x^{2}+y^{2}$ and $g(x, y)=-x^{2}-y^{2}+x y^{3}$ be called "tangent" at (0,0)$?$
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