Dixie is a 36-year-old G2 P1. Her first baby weighed 9 pounds 12 ounces and was delivered by cesarean birth after a protracted labor. During this pregnancy, Dixie was screened for gestational diabetes with 50 grams of glucola, followed by a blood glucose measurement an hour later, which was elevated. A 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test was ordered, which was abnormal. Dixie's gestational diabetes is managed by diet and close antepartum surveillance. Her obstetrician has ordered antepartum testing twice a week starting at 32 weeks of gestation, and Dixie has scheduled an NST following her prenatal visit today.
Question 1: What is the definition of a high-risk pregnancy?
Question 2: What are the psychological considerations related to high-risk pregnancies?
Question 3: What is the expected outcome of antepartum testing?
Question 4: What is the basis for a nonstress test (NST)?
Question 5: What is the procedure for an NST?
Question 6: How are the results interpreted?
Question 7: Dixie has been on the fetal monitor for 20 minutes, and the fetus has accelerated twice, each lasting 10 seconds and peaking at 10 beats/min above the baseline. Is this a normal finding in this case?
Question 8: The nonstress test is continued for another 20 minutes, and the results are reactive. What is the most common reason for the absence of FHR accelerations?