Which of the following could be the result of applying the Negation Equivalence Laws to the statement:
$\forall x \in D, Q(x) \to (\exists y \in D, P(x, y)) \land \sim (\forall y \in D, P(x, y))$
None of these, because the law doesn't match the statement (specifically, the right side of the statement).
$\forall x \in D, Q(x) \to F$
$\forall x \in D, F$
F
$\sim \forall x \in D, Q(x) \to (\exists y \in D, P(x, y)) \land \sim (\forall y \in D, P(x, y))$
None of these, because we cannot apply the law to just the right side of the statement.